Is cos(0+pi/2)=-sin(0) ?

The answer to whether cos(0+pi/2)=-sin(0) is True

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Popular Trigonometry >

prove cos(0+pi/2)=-sin(0)

Solution

prove

cos (0 + \frac{π}{2}) = - sin (0)

Solution

True

Solution steps

cos (0 + \frac{π}{2}) = - sin (0)

Manipulating left side

cos (0 + \frac{π}{2})

Rewrite using trig identities

cos (0 + \frac{π}{2})

Use the Angle Sum identity:

cos (s + t) = cos (s) cos (t) - sin (s) sin (t)

= cos (0) cos (\frac{π}{2}) - sin (0) sin (\frac{π}{2})

cos (0) cos (\frac{π}{2}) - sin (0) sin (\frac{π}{2}) = 0

cos (0) cos (\frac{π}{2}) - sin (0) sin (\frac{π}{2})

cos (0) cos (\frac{π}{2}) = 0

cos (0) cos (\frac{π}{2})

Simplify

cos (0) : 1

cos (0)

Use the following trivial identity:

cos (0) = 1

cos (x)

periodicity table with

2 πn

cycle:

x 0 \frac{π}{6} \frac{π}{4} \frac{π}{3} \frac{π}{2} \frac{2 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{4} \frac{5 π}{6} cos (x) 1 \frac{3}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{1}{2} 0 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{3}{2} x π \frac{7 π}{6} \frac{5 π}{4} \frac{4 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{2} \frac{5 π}{3} \frac{7 π}{4} \frac{11 π}{6} cos (x) - 1 - \frac{3}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{1}{2} 0 \frac{1}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{3}{2}

= 1

= 1 \cdot cos (\frac{π}{2})

Simplify

cos (\frac{π}{2}) : 0

cos (\frac{π}{2})

Use the following trivial identity:

cos (\frac{π}{2}) = 0

cos (x)

periodicity table with

2 πn

cycle:

x 0 \frac{π}{6} \frac{π}{4} \frac{π}{3} \frac{π}{2} \frac{2 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{4} \frac{5 π}{6} cos (x) 1 \frac{3}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{1}{2} 0 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{3}{2} x π \frac{7 π}{6} \frac{5 π}{4} \frac{4 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{2} \frac{5 π}{3} \frac{7 π}{4} \frac{11 π}{6} cos (x) - 1 - \frac{3}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{1}{2} 0 \frac{1}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{3}{2}

= 0

= 1 \cdot 0

Apply rule

0 \cdot a = 0

= 0

sin (0) sin (\frac{π}{2}) = 0

sin (0) sin (\frac{π}{2})

Simplify

sin (0) : 0

sin (0)

Use the following trivial identity:

sin (0) = 0

sin (x)

periodicity table with

2 πn

cycle:

x 0 \frac{π}{6} \frac{π}{4} \frac{π}{3} \frac{π}{2} \frac{2 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{4} \frac{5 π}{6} sin (x) 0 \frac{1}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{3}{2} 1 \frac{3}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{1}{2} x π \frac{7 π}{6} \frac{5 π}{4} \frac{4 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{2} \frac{5 π}{3} \frac{7 π}{4} \frac{11 π}{6} sin (x) 0 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{3}{2} - 1 - \frac{3}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{1}{2}

= 0

= 0 \cdot sin (\frac{π}{2})

Simplify

sin (\frac{π}{2}) : 1

sin (\frac{π}{2})

Use the following trivial identity:

sin (\frac{π}{2}) = 1

sin (x)

periodicity table with

2 πn

cycle:

x 0 \frac{π}{6} \frac{π}{4} \frac{π}{3} \frac{π}{2} \frac{2 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{4} \frac{5 π}{6} sin (x) 0 \frac{1}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{3}{2} 1 \frac{3}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{1}{2} x π \frac{7 π}{6} \frac{5 π}{4} \frac{4 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{2} \frac{5 π}{3} \frac{7 π}{4} \frac{11 π}{6} sin (x) 0 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{3}{2} - 1 - \frac{3}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{1}{2}

= 1

= 0 \cdot 1

Apply rule

0 \cdot a = 0

= 0

= 0 - 0

Simplify

= 0

= 0

= 0

Manipulating right side

- sin (0)

Simplify

- sin (0) : 0

- sin (0)

Use the following trivial identity:

sin (0) = 0

sin (x)

periodicity table with

2 πn

cycle:

x 0 \frac{π}{6} \frac{π}{4} \frac{π}{3} \frac{π}{2} \frac{2 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{4} \frac{5 π}{6} sin (x) 0 \frac{1}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{3}{2} 1 \frac{3}{2} \frac{2}{2} \frac{1}{2} x π \frac{7 π}{6} \frac{5 π}{4} \frac{4 π}{3} \frac{3 π}{2} \frac{5 π}{3} \frac{7 π}{4} \frac{11 π}{6} sin (x) 0 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{3}{2} - 1 - \frac{3}{2} - \frac{2}{2} - \frac{1}{2}

= - 0

= 0

= 0

We showed that the two sides could take the same form

\Rightarrow True

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Is cos(0+pi/2)=-sin(0) ?
The answer to whether cos(0+pi/2)=-sin(0) is True